Amanda Scott, a registered representative, is advising a retail customer, Mr. David Chen, who is 58, has a moderate risk tolerance, and aims to generate stable income for his impending retirement in 5-7 years, while also preserving capital. Mr. Chen currently holds a diversified portfolio of large-cap equities and investment-grade bonds. Amanda recommends investing a significant portion of his bond allocation into a newly issued actively managed high-yield bond fund, which carries a 1.25% annual management fee and a 1% upfront sales charge. Her firm also offers several lower-cost, passively managed investment-grade bond ETFs with similar risk profiles and yields, and significantly lower expense ratios (e.g., 0.15% annually) and no upfront sales charge, which Amanda did not discuss in detail with Mr. Chen. Considering Mr. Chen's objectives and the firm's available products, which aspect of Amanda's conduct would most likely be considered a violation of Regulation Best Interest (Reg BI) by FINRA?